Hi everyone.
My question is one that has likely been asked many times before, so if there is a quick link to a quick answer, please let me know.
Capitalism is basically the system of the owners taking for themselves the surplus value of their workers, right... My question is, what is necessarily wrong with that?
Let me explain. If person Y agrees to sell a disc to person Z for 5 dollars, and after the payment, person Z turns and sells that same disc for 10 dollars, is our person Y really entitled to a portion of the earnings? Or, said another way, has person Y really been cheated or robbed? My logic tells me no, because Y agreed to 5 dollars, and NOT a percentage of Z's profits. In fact, it seems to me that person Y, having sold the disc, can have no more claim to it at all; whatever our person Z does with it is entirely his own business.
I sympathize with Y; he only made 10 instead of 5 dollars, but having given away the right to his item for 5 dollars, he is merely misfortune, not a victim.
Is this logic flawed?
thanks
Xuan
An intriguing question. Here is a good simple answer.